Pre-Trib Double Standard
In the previous article, I examined the dispensational pre-trib consistent use of their literal interpretation of scriptures. And the conclusion is their interpretation of scripture wasn't consistent, nor was it literal. And their interpretation is not free from exaggeration or embellishment. In this article we will cover some more of scripture and cover their double-standard method of interpretation.
When Jesus discussed His coming He specifically said his coming was "Immediately after the tribulation" of those days...there will appear a sign of the son of Man from Heaven...and all the tribes of the earth will morn and they will see the Son of Man coming in the clouds of heaven..."1 Never is there found where Jesus or the writers of the New Testament ever said that Jesus had a coming before the tribulation. Neither will you find in any sequence of verses that Jesus' coming was in secret and non-believers will be unaware what will happen. This is where one of the big differences between pre and post-trib lay.
You would think that if there were a two-phased coming that there would be verses just as specific for "pre-trib" as they are in the verses for post trib.2 But this is not so in the pre-trib scenario.
Another example of the double-standardry is the promise pre-tribbers claim that Jesus gives to the disciples in John 14.
In this passage of scripture, pre-tribbers claim that the Father's House is in heaven. And Jesus is promising a pre-trib coming to rapture the church. However, Jesus didn't say He will come before the tribulation. And of course, to justify their view, pre-tribbers insist that the disciples are in reference to the church. That's rather strange. Because, before these instructions Jesus told His disciples they will see the abomination of desolation and warned them at that time of great tribulation, there will be false prophets and false christs who will try to deceive them. And He told them His coming was after the tribulation. If the disciples represented the church in John 14, then they should represent the church in Matthew 24 as well. But not so, according to the pre-trib way of thinking. The disciples represent the "tribulation saints." Where is the reasoning behind this?
If we were to take this one step further and if Jesus told them in John chapter 14 they will be raptured into heaven before the tribulation, why did Jesus pray to the Father in the garden just before His Arrest: "I pray that thou shouldest not take them out of this world, but thou shouldest keep them from the evil."?4 To make an above statement after He allegedly promised a rapture into heaven is touble-talk. Especially when He instructs the disciples before His Ascention to make disciples of all nations and teach them to observe everything He commanded them.5 If were to apply this to the pre-trib way of thinking, not only do we have double-talk but contradictions as well.
We look into another example in 1 Thessalonians chapter 4 where the basic rapture verse is used:
This is another verse where pre-tribbers support their view. In this part of scripture, Paul informed them at the coming of the Lord, they will be raptured into heaven before the tribulation. To support their view further, they say Paul didn't mention Jesus touching the Earth so therefore they are beamed up into Heaven. however, in their double-standard method of interpretation, They assume the ones who are alive will be raptured into heaven even though Paul doesn't say so. Therefore, we can't conclude that they are. However, they insist this is the case. If they can't find Jesus touching the ground in this scripture, and there is no mention the ones who are alive are taken back into heaven, then why are they using a double standard?
To comment further, How many post tribulation passages specify that Jesus touches down on earth? Only a few do and there is one in the new testament in the book of Acts. In the book of Zechariah, we find the only verse where Jesus is on the ground at His coming: "And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east..." 6 So why are they not applying the same standard to these passages as well?
We will look into the Book of Revelation. One of the pre-tribbers views is that the church is raptured before the tribulation because there is the absence of the word church after chapter three. However, in chapters 4-21, the church isn't mentioned all. The church isn't mentioned in the heavenly scenes, during the millennium, and after the millennium. If were to take this view to the fullest, then we must conclude that after chapter 3, the church must have dissolved, because the church isn't there! And to further their double standard, they insist in chapter 4, the church is raptured in the following scene:
Many of them claim that when John heard the voice talking with him, the command to "come up hither" was twhen John and the church is be raptured into heaven. This looks so odd because what isn't mentioned? Let's look closely. Is the church mentioned? So, therefore, since the church isn't mentioned in this verse, Can we logically conclude that this verse doesn't apply to the church as well?
As seen in the Gospels, the word Church mentioned only three times and in only two verses and mentioned only in Matthew. In the other new testament letters, there is no mention of church in Ephesians, Second Timothy, Titus, First and Second Peter, First and Second John, and Jude. However, pre-tribbers do believe these letters were written for the church. Throughout the New and Old Testament, The word saint is used for believers. In the New Testament, the word saint applies for the church. They do make up the Body of Christ. And the word saint is used throughout the tribulation scenes in the book of Revelation. Therefore why can't saint be applied to the church as well? Not so with pre-tribbers. So why the double standard? Because, according to pre-tribbers, these are the "tribulation saints." However, "tribulation saints" aren't used throughout the bible. This is another double standard.
To look at this further, pre-tribbers claim that Matthew 24 was written to the "tribulation saints." But what should be applied to the absence of "church" in the tribulation passages in Revelation should also apply to "tribulation saints" in Matthew 24 because "tribulation saints" does not appear.
These are just a few examples of their double-standards. Please check Tribulation Central for more updates on this article. And I urge you to study scripture yourselves and see if pre or post trib is true.
1-Matthew 24:29-31 (KJV) [Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other. ]; Mark 13:24-27 KJV [ But in those days, after that tribulation, the sun shall be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, And the stars of heaven shall fall, and the powers that are in heaven shall be shaken. And then shall they see the Son of man coming in the clouds with great power and glory. And then shall he send his angels, and shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from the uttermost part of the earth to the uttermost part of heaven].
2-Ibid., see also
3-All further scripture references are from the King James version of the Bible, except where noted.
5-Matthew 24:19-20-"Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you..."